Trills
When a composer writes a chord with 2 voices and puts "tr" above the chord, does that mean only the first voice trills or do both voices trill?
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When a composer writes a chord with 2 voices and puts "tr" above the chord, does that mean only the first voice trills or do both voices trill?
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Comments
I wouldn't assume there is one universal answer to this. The limitations of the design of the human hand are such that this is next to impossible to play as two trills on most instruments, so in general, I'd assume it's just one. But you'd have to know what instrument the piece was written for, and maybe a thing or two about the composer or editor, in order to know for sure.
In reply to I wouldn't assume there is by Marc Sabatella
The instruments are woodwinds and strings and the composer is Richard Strauss. There are at least two players for each instrument so I assumed that one player would trill the first voice and the other player the second voice but I thought I would check to be sure.
In reply to The instruments are woodwinds by hmscomp
So I guess you are looking at the full score, not the parts? In that case, I would probably assume both parts have the trill.
In reply to So I guess you are looking at by Marc Sabatella
I would try to find the separate part and hope that each both woodwind part would be separate into first and second to see if second has it ;)