long slurs vs piano marks??
HI folks: I m still too much a novice to understand this distinction.
Examine this small sample:
It is a piano piece with both ties, slurs and piano marks. It is my understanding that ties tell the pianist not to strike the 2nd note, so the 1st note carries through. Got that. The piano marks tell the pianist to hold the pedal down for the length of the mark, allowing all notes to ring together so to speak, through 2- 4 measures (that is the composer's desire). What throws me are the slurs. To me, a slur simply tells the player to play the notes legato, or smoothly. I can understand it in violins and strings, even horns, but is this case, the piano mark is going to force all the notes to play smoothly and continuously, isn't it? In THIS case, could I not delete all the slurs, keep the ties and pedal marks, and have the song sound exactly the same? I really would prefer that because the slurs sort of crowd things up. Your advice is as always, greatly appreciated.